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Colwell's rule and John 1:1

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A closer look at John 1:1 and the application of Colwell's rule. ...και θεος ην ο λογος - John 1:1 "...and the Word was ___" …God, divine, or a god? Colwell's rule is used to insist the translation should be the definite "God". In his 1933 article entitled A definite rule for the use of the article in the Greek New Testament  he proposes this rule: " A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb, it does not have the article when it precedes the verb ".  Let's first define what these terms mean:  The predicate is the part of a sentence which describes or modifies the subject . For example John 1:5 begins "And the light shines in the darkness" - the light is the subject of the sentence, and shines in the darkness is the predicate. The function of the predicate therefore is to tell us something about the subject   and almost always contains a verb plus anything following that verb.  The subject + predicate i...

John 10:30, "One in essence/being?"

 Almost every Trinitarian you meet will present you John 10:30 to provide scriptural evidence for the Trinity Concept. In the Trinitarian view, It's understood as "One"(ἕν) in Essence along with Agreement and Unity. However, that isn't the case at all when it comes to as one in essence or being. It is a non-sequitur view that is presupposed/asserted into the text. Although Trinitarians would argue by showing "context" such as John 10:33, which says "The Jews answered him, "It is not for a good work that we stone you but for blasphemy; because you, being a man, make yourself God.". First, let's note that the Jews denied that they were seeking to stone him because of his good work. Does this make their denial true? Hardly, they had earlier denied that they were even seeking to kill Jesus (John 7:19,20). To give credence to this idea would in fact be calling Jesus a liar as Jesus pointed out the real reasons why they wished to kill him. Their...

Trinitarian's Textual Issue on Roman's 9:5

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There are plenty of verses in today's world that are always misinterpreted and used by Many Snake-Deceivers as we know today, “Trinitarians”. They are hungry and eager to find any verse to get their hands on and twist, or add to the text to aid their heretical Theology. Sadly, Romans 9:5 is commonly used to support their notion of Jesus being equal to the Father due to the same action that the Father is accounted for, is “applied” to the Son. A simple quick flawed Misunderstood philosophical equation of, 1. Only God can X, Jesus can do X, Therefore Jesus is God. Here is how it goes, in Psalm 97:9 the Father is set to be over all things as the most high - Connecting that with Romans 9:5 as Claiming to be Jesus who is over all things as well. The problem here is that this assertion is a bit ambiguous to really say who is being referred to as “God over all” but it's set to be the Father since Ephesians 4:6 makes it clear who it is. However, the punctuation in Romans 9:5 is challe...

The Two Christian Hopes and The Partakers of The New Covenant (Covenant Particularity)

  The Two Hopes in Relation to the New Covenant There is no doubt that the bible holds out a hope for everlasting life on earth. Revelation 21:3-4 describes realities that don't exist in heaven , so for them to be done away with it must make sense this is referring to the earth where that reality of death does exist. Martha certainly believed in an earthly hope when she said of her brother “I know he will rise in the resurrection on the last day.” (John 11:24) True, the Sadducees of the time denied the resurrection. (Mark 12:18) However, in his book Judaism in the First Centuries of the Christian Era , George Foot Moore says: “Writings . . . of the second or first centuries before our era attest the belief that at the expected turning-point in the history of the world the dead of former generations would be brought to life again on earth.”   No such thing as heaven being the “in between” then coming back.  When Jesus was speaking to Nicodemus he explicitly mentions ...